All Things Were Made by Him

18 May

Without the Word of God, nothing was brought into being. The Biblical Unitarian[1] (BU hereafter) argument says that nothing was brought into being without the plan, and all things were made through (dia G1223) the plan. If God had a plan, did he write it down and place it beside himself? Something similar to this would have to be true, for the Scriptures to even begin to support their argument in  John 1:1 where it says, the logos (plan) was with God. The argument in verse-3 is that nothing was created that was not brought into being through (dia G1223) this plan. So, is the plan inside the mind of God or is it placed beside God?

John 1:3 NASB  All things came into being through him, and apart from him nothing came into being that has come into being.

2 Peter 3:5 KJV  For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the Word (Logos) of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water:

Psalms 33:6 Septuagint  (6)  By the Word (Logos) of the Lord the heavens were established; and all the host of them by the breath of His mouth.

Whatever the Logos (Word, G3056) is, these Scriptures agree that all things were brought into existence by or through the Logos or Word of God. The question is, are the Scriptures speaking of a living entity (God) or a created object (plan)? How could a plan be WITH anyone in the sense that it is ALONGSIDE the person? Perhaps one could say something was done through a plan, but unless the plan had been written out and placed beside the person, the plan cannot be said to be BESIDE or WITH that person. Why would God need to write out his plan? Would he forget what he wanted to do? Does God need a plan or does he simply know what to do, if he desires to do a thing (omniscience)? In what sense could this BU plan of God need to exist in the first place?

Hebrews 11:3 KJV  Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word (utterance) of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear.

This Scripture says that the worlds were framed by the word or utterance of God. In this instance the word is not the Logos of John 1:1. What does this mean? In Genesis 1:3, 6, 9, 11, 14, 20, 24, 26 it reads “And God said…” which agrees with Hebrews 11:3 that it was the word or utterance (G4487 rhema) of God that framed the worlds. However, when we look at Genesis chapter 1, we are able to see something else going on besides the utterance of God. For example, God said, “let there be a firmament…” in Genesis 1:6, but in verse-7 it reads “And God made the firmament…” The word for made is asah (H6213) in the Hebrew and means to labor, or create. In Isaiah 55:11 asah (H6218) is used for the Word of God going out of the mouth of God to accomplish what he desires. It is used in Deuteronomy 33:31 for Gad, a tribe of Israel, who executed the judgments of the LORD. This word is translated into “do, did, make, made” etc. numerous times. The point I wish to bring out is that in Genesis chapter 1 God says, and then God does. God speaks, and then God executes. God utters his will, and then God brings that will to pass. Finally, God said, “let US make man in OUR image, after OUR likeness… so God created the man in his image…” (Genesis 1:26-27).

In John 1:3 we have all things coming into existence through (dia G1223) the Word. Absolutely nothing has come to exist without the effort of the Word. Hebrews 11:3 says God uttered and it was so, to which Genesis 1:3, 6, 9, 11, 14, 20, 24 and 26 agree. Indeed, “God said,” but Genesis 1:7, 16, 21, 25 and 27 also says that God made (asah H6213) or created (bara H1254) whatever God said. Doesn’t this say exactly what John 1:3 implies, namely that God created all things through the Word? If this is so, doesn’t Genesis chapter 1 also imply that the Word was alive and active, executing the desires of God? Furthermore, doesn’t the language of Genesis chapter 1 say that whoever executed the utterance of God was also God? It seems to me that Genesis 1:1-27 says in detail what John 1:1-3 says in summary. Consider the following Scriptures,

Ephesians 3:9 KJV  And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:

Colossians 1:15-18 NASB  he (Jesus Christ) is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.  [16]  For by him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities–all things have been created through him and for him.  [17]  he is before all things, and in him all things hold together.  [18]  he is also head of the body, the church; and he is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, so that he himself will come to have first place in everything. (parenthesis and emphasis mine throughout)

The preposition used above is dia and means through. That is, all things were made “though” Jesus Christ. It makes no difference that some manuscripts do not support the final clause of Ephesians 3:9, because the same thing is put forth in Colossians 1:16. The problem for the BU argument is not to prove that the clause in Ephesians 3:9 is a later addition. That would take attention away from their real problem, namely, how could all things have been created through the Son of God (Jesus Christ) as stated in Colossians 1:16?

How is it possible for anyone to claim that the Scripture is speaking of a plan in Colossians 1:15-18? Is the plan the image of the invisible God? I don’t know of anyone who would claim such to be so. Therefore, we are speaking in verse-15 of Jesus Christ. He is the image of the invisible God (v.15), and by him, or more correctly “in him, all things were created…” “through him and for him (all things were created)” (v.16). In other words, since all things were created through him, Jesus is before all things (v.17). This agrees with John 1:1 that claims the Word was already in the beginning, before anything was created. But does it really mean that God created everything through a plan?

Romans 11:33-36 NASB  Oh, the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments and unfathomable his ways!  (34)  For WHO HAS KNOWN THE MIND OF THE LORD, OR WHO BECAME HIS COUNSELOR?  (35)  Or WHO HAS FIRST GIVEN TO HIM THAT IT MIGHT BE PAID BACK TO HIM AGAIN?  (36)  For from him and through him and to him are all things. To him be the glory forever. Amen. (emphasis in v.36 mine)

Notice that creation was from God. However, it was also through God and to or toward God! Isn’t this what John 1:1-3 clearly states? All things were created through the Word (John 1:3) and the Word was to or toward (with – Greek pros G4314) God; and the Word was God (John 1:1-2). But this cannot indicate a plan, because the Scripture says in Romans 11:36 that creation is also from God. The word God is used only once in Romans 11:33 and the word Lord is used once to reference a passage in the Old Testament, Isaiah 40:13-14. Therefore, all of the prepositions in Romans 11:36 refer to the word God in verse-33, or simply, the Godhead. While Romans 11:36 says that creation was executed through God, John 1:3 says creation was done through the Word. Colossians 1:16 and Ephesians 3:9 state that it was done through Jesus Christ. John 1:14 says the Word became flesh (a man – Jesus Christ). Is there any logical reason why we should not believe that, because John 1:1 says the Word was God and John 1:14 says the Word became flesh (man – Jesus), that Jesus is not God? I do not see how this can be confusion. The Scriptures seem to be very clear. It is only when men try to use their own understanding without judging their rationalizations with the Scriptures that mistakes are made. We should always judge our logical conclusions with the word of God, rather than judging the word of God by our own logical conclusions.

[1] The BUs believe “the Word” (Logos) in John’s Prologue actually means “the plan.” Their website can be found here:

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Posted by on May 18, 2011 in Godhead


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